Sermons

Summary: The LGBTQIA community has raised the argument that the word ‘homosexual’ never appeared in the Bible until 1946

Before we begin, it is important to note that Jesus is God, and as God, that makes Him the author of both the Old and New Testaments and He does not change (John 1:1-5; Ps 15:4; Mal 3:6; James 1:17). Either “All Scripture is breathed out by God (i.e.Jesus) and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work” or it is not (2 Tim 3:16-17 ESV; also 2 Pet 1:21-21). Therefore, if a person who says they are a believer, does not believe that, then there is no foundation of agreement from which to build a discussion based upon the Bible, so don't waste your time debating/arguing with them.

The LGBTQIA community has raised the argument that the word ‘homosexual’ never occurred in the Bible until 1946 and because it is a modern construct, and not specifically in the Bible, it supports their belief that being LGBTQIA is not wrong because the people translating the Bible use it to fit their prejudices (http://www.pflagupstatesc.org/statistics.htm).

The etymology of the word ‘homosexual’ was first used in 1892 in the English translation of Krafft-Ebing's "Psychopathia sexualis" which was a reference work, written in German, on sexual perversions. It first appeared in 1886 and was enormously popular, being reprinted about once a year!"(http://wiki.answers.com/Q/What_year_did_homosexual_become_a_word – see also http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=homosexuality&searchmode=none).

In 1892, it was a bit less technologically advanced than today. It can take decades for new words to enter the common language, which can explain why the term did not appear in the Bible until 1946.

The real question is, once you wade through all the obfuscation, does the Bible teach against the concept of homosexuality?

What does the Bible Say?

There are only two places in the New Testament where the word "homosexual" occurs in the English Bible (See 1 Cor 6:9; 1 Tim 1:10).

The English word translated as ‘homosexual’ in the NT is 'arsenokoites,' a combination of two Greek words, 'arseno,' which means a male, and 'koite' which means a bed/marriage bed. In the plural form it means repeated immoral sexual intercourse, and is used for one who lies with a male as with a female, a sodomite (1 Cor 6:9; Rom 9:10, 13:13; 1 Tim 1:10) [cf. Lev. 18:22; Rom. 1:27])

It is possible that 'arsenokoites' in specific contexts refers to the active male partner in homosexual intercourse in contrast with the passive male partner (Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996).

When translating the Bible, it is always a best practice to use an English word that accurately portrays the original. Since a new and more accurate name had entered the English vocabulary, it became the word of choice.

ho•mo•sex•u•al adj 1892 1: of, relating to, or characterized by a tendency to direct sexual desire toward another of the same sex 2: of, relating to, or involving sexual intercourse between persons of the same sex--ho•mo•sex•u•al•ly adv (Merriam-Webster dictionary, 11th ed. Springfield, Mass, 2003)

The only explicit reference to same-sex sexual activity and same-sex orientation in the Bible is found in the first chapter of the Book of Romans, which was written to affirm the faith in Jesus of those in the church at Rome, and the sin they together condemn (Rom 1:3-5, 18-32). The focus is on same-sex relations example (Rom 1:24-28) and presented as pagan depravity (Rom 1:24-28). However, it must is also be noted that their sins were no better (Rom 2:1).

Three passages in the Old Testament deal with Homosexuality (Lev. 18:22; 20:13; Gen 19). Two of those passages concerning homosexuality are found in the Law, "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination" and “decrees death” for both parties participating in such an act. The last verse tells the story of the sin of the men of Sodom, from which the term "Sodomite” is derived. The story has nothing to do with consent. Two men, who are guests in Lot's house, are angels, who are threatened with gang rape by the men of the town. The story follows after God has told Abraham that He will forgive if ten righteous men can be found in a city. The point is to show that there are no such righteous men in Sodom. Lot tells the gang, "I beg you, my brothers, do not act so wickedly" (v.17) which is undoubtedly in context, a comment on their homosexual sinfulness as well as on their violence. The whole story is a protest story protesting those sexual aberrations so prevalent in Canaan at the time, as well as protesting the treatment to which Lot wants to subject his daughters to in v. 8. For such wickedness, brimstone and fire are rained down by God on Sodom, and the only thing that saves Lot is God's remembrance of his covenant with Abraham (v. 29). The homosexuality mentioned in the story is not consensual and is undoubtedly condemned.

Copy Sermon to Clipboard with PRO Download Sermon with PRO
Talk about it...

Nobody has commented yet. Be the first!

Join the discussion